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Why do we reconstruct the voiced aspirates (*bh,*dh, *gh, *gwh) for Indo-European and what was their treatment in Greek and Latin?
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i) Why do we reconstruct the voiced aspirates (*bh, *dh, *gh, *gwh) for Indo-European and ii) what was their treatment in Greek and Latin? i) Two series of stops, voiced and voiceless, are easily established for Indo-European and with reasonable certainty. A third is commonly believed to have existed, and there is also the possibility of a fourth. Evidence for at least one other mode of articulation in the parent language is apparent in several of the daughter languages:- Old Indic has a series of voiced aspirated stops, Greek has a series of voiceless aspirated stops and Italic has a series of fricatives which were at one time voiceless. This variety makes it difficult to deduce what the exact phonetic value of the original sounds were in Indo-European. Buck thought that the usual designation and notation represented "the most probable hypothesis and at any rate a convenient formula" whereas Sihler states...
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