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In what ways, and to what extent, does the concept of Spain's 'Golden Age' apply more specifically to the reign of Philip II than to the whole period 1474-1598?
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In what ways, and to what extent, does the concept of Spain's 'Golden Age' apply more specifically to the reign of Philip II than to the whole period 1474-1598? Justify your answer by reference to the similarities and differences between the periods before and after the accession of Philip II in 1556? Philip II's reign as king of Spain is often referred to as the 'golden age'. A time where government was further centralised, where the economy benefited from being the centre of increased trade with the New World and where according to Geoffrey Parker 'the Spanish empire was the largest and richest in the world'. To an extent Philip's reign was exclusively 'golden' he was the first to set up administrative functions of government in a single capital, Madrid, gold bullion reached a record level and he was successful in defending his territory. However, it is difficult to view...
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