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How faithfully do the Greek and Latin first declension continue the Indo-European paradigm and how are the changes accounted for?
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How faithfully do the Greek and Latin first declension continue the Indo-European paradigm and how are the changes accounted for? The first declension, was originally an adjectival declension, used in I.E. for feminine forms of thematic adjectives. In the daughter languages its use was extended to thematic nouns, so we find in Greek, ???????beside ??????s, in Latin agna beside agnus, which in earlier Latin would have to have been expressed by agnus femina, and in Sanskrit asva beside asvah. This explains why the majority of words in this declension are feminine and also the close relationship between it and the o-stem declension of the ????s type, despite the fact that technically it is an athematic declension. The long a of the stem presumably comes from the I.E. thematic vowel *-e- plus the suffix *H since *-eH C>a. This declension is found in all the daughter languages except Hittite which has...
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