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In the statement “All of the other ways of knowing are controlled by language”, there are implications of language being superior to other
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All of the other Ways of Knowing are controlled by language. What does this statement mean and do you think it is a fair representation of the relationship between perception, emotion, reason and language? In the statement "All of the other ways of knowing are controlled by language", there are implications of language being superior to other aspects of knowledge - perception, reason and emotion. Language does not necessarily "control" all the other ways of knowledge, but leans more towards "can heavily influence" the other ways of knowledge. Whether the two terms are synonyms or whether this statement is a fair representation of the relationship between perception, emotion, reason and language relies heavily on the definition of the word control, which is as each individual would interpret it. Therein lies one of the more important problems of knowledge in language; how would one know what the true definition of a word...
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