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Why does Locke’s political theory contain an account of property rights? Does this account succeed in serving his purpose?
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Why does Locke's political theory contain an account of property rights? Does this account succeed in serving his purpose? Locke, following Hobbes, based his second treatise on the state of nature. However for Locke the state of nature was a moral code whereas for Hobbes it was essentially behavioural. Locke, who with many of his time was deeply religious, based his politics on the moral obligation of man to God, by way of a set of duties owed to Him. Locke argued that self-preservation was important, as with this comes the freedom to continue to discharge ones duty to God. Locke spent the vast majority of his first treatise forming a critique of Robert Filmer's Patriarcha. Filmer argued that as God granted Adam the right to private property and that the monarchs of the world were descended from Adam, then all property within their dominion was their private property. However Locke...
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