Logged out
Access All our Essays in an Instant
Swap your work for FREE access, or pay £4.99 for instant access
Was Chamberlain's policy of appeasement justified?
Member rating: No Rating | Words: | Submitted: Thu Oct 14 2004
Page Preview
On the left is an image preview of every page of this document, and below are the first 150 words with formatting removed:
Was Chamberlain's policy of appeasement justified? Firstly, appeasement was not just Chamberlain's policy, but a general policy executed by Britain throughout the 30s. But it was Chamberlain who brought it to a climax and officially declared the end to appeasement on 6 April 1939. This indicates the extent to which his policy was justifiable. Hitler came to power in January 1933 and in 1934 Germany began to rearm, breaking the Treaty of Versailles. Although this was against what Britain and France ordered at the end of World War 1, Britain did not react aggressively. They began to rearm too, but less compared to Germany. This shows unwillingness to fight, as Britain was trying to avoid war since 1933. The Depression also put stress on Britain financially. This clearly shows that appeasement was not only the policy of Chamberlain, as he came to power as Prime Minister in May 1937. However, it...
Get instant access
- Instant, unlimited access to our documents in full
- Swap your work for free access, or pay £4.99
- To see the full version of this document and 163,049 others
